UPSC CDS I General Science – 10 April 2022 Answer Key
संघ लोक सेवा आयोग (UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION) द्वारा आयोजित संयुक्त रक्षा सेवा परीक्षा (Combined Defence Services Examination CDS) की परीक्षा का आयोजन 10 April 2022 को किया गया। इस पोस्ट में आज हुए प्रश्नपत्र कि उत्तरकुंजी उपलब्ध है।
UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION conducted the Combined Defence Services Examination (CDS) exam on 10 April 2022. In this post the answer key of today’s question paper is available.
Exam: Combined Defence Services Examination (CDS)
Organized: UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Number of Questions: 120
Paper Set: B
Paper Language: Hindi/English
Q1. Which one of the following inputs is required in less quantity in case of non-farming activities?
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Raw material
Q2. Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is correct?
(a) It ensures 175 days of employment to needy persons in rural areas.
(b) It gives higher wages to women workers.
(c) People are generally given both skilled and unskilled jobs.
(d) This is implemented only in rural areas of India.
Q3. Which one of the following is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India?
(a) National Emergency
(b) State Emergency terms of Proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
(c) Financial Emergency.
(d) Health Emergency
Q4. Which one of the following is not a provision related to a Money Bill?
(a) Imposition, abolition, remission,alteration or regulation of any tax
(b) Appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose
(d) Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
Q5. Which one of the following items is not covered under GST?
(a) Cosmetics
(b) Medical grade oxygen
(c) Jewellery
(d) Petrol
Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Committee on Estimates is an ad hoc committee of the Parliament.
- Committee on Railway Convention is a standing committee of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only/
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q7. Which one of the following is not an Indian form of Socialism?
(a) Democratic Socialism.
(b) Radical Socialism
(c) Communitarian Socialism
(d) Nehruvian Socialism
Q8. Which one of the following best describes BRICS?
(a) A group of five nuclear powers
(b) A group of five industrialized nations emerging
(c) A group of five major economies
(d) A group of five potentially strong UN Security Council members from the Countries of the Global South
Q9. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian Federalism?
(a) The federating units consented to form a union
(b) Residuary powers vest with the Centre
(c) Single citizenship
(d) An extensive Union and Concurrent list
Q10. Which of the following statements about sculptures at Sanchi is/are correct?
- In some sculptures there representation of Shalabhanjika.
- The figure of Shalabhanjika is represented by a woman surrounded by lotuses and elephants.
- The Shalabhanjika motif was directly inspired by Buddhist ideas.
Select the correct answer using the code given. not below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q11. In which one of the following years was the first. telegraphic connection. between Europe and India ? established
(a) 1851
(b) 1854
(c) 1865
(d) 1871
Q12. Who among the following was the founder of the Virashaiva Movement in Karnataka?
(a) Basavanna
(b) Appar
(c) Sambandar
(d) Sundarar
Q13. The ruins of Hampi were brought to light by which of the following British officers of the East India Company? EXAMS
(a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
(b) James Prinsep
(c) William Jones
(d) James Rennell
Q14. Which one of the following works was composed by Krishnadevaraya on statecraft in Telugu?
(a) Amuktamalyadav
(b) Jambavati Kalyanam
(c) Rayaváchakamu
(d) Satyavadu Parinaya
Q15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Soil Type) (Salient Characteristic)
A. Entisols 1. Soils having weakly or quickly developed horizons
B. Inceptisols 2. Weakly developed soils with no horizons
C. Histosols 3. These soils are very old and highly weathered
D. Oxisols 4. These soils have very high quantity of organic matter in the upper layers
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2
Q16. A peripediment in a desert or semi-desert region is also known as:
(a) Inselberg
(b) Zeugen
(c) Bajada
(d) Playa
Q17. Individual lava flows are normally only a few feet thick, but over a long period of time, repeated flows may build up a volcano. Such volcanoes are termed as:
(a) Shield volcano.
(b) Composite volcano.
(c) Strato-volcano.
(d) Cinder-cone volcano.
Q18. Isohalines are lines joining equal :
(a) temperature.
(b) pressure.
(c) rainfall.
(d) salinity.
Q19. Which one of the following would be considered as Foreign Direct Investment?
(a) A foreign company buying shares in stock exchanges in India.
(b) A foreign country pension fund investing in Indian stock markets
(c) A foreign merchant banker buying shares from Indian stock markets
(d) A foreign entity setting up an educational institution in India
Q20. Which one of the following does not influence quantity demanded for a good?
(a) Good’s own price
(b) Price of a complementary good
(c) Price of a substitute good
(d) Prices of inputs into production of the good
Q21. Consider the following statements :
- In the 19th century, peasants in various parts of India rose in revolt against moneylenders and grain dealers.
- In May 1875, at village Supa in Poona District in the Bombay Deccan, peasants attacked shopkeepers, burnt the bahi khatas (account books), looted grain shops and set fire to the houses of Sahukars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q22. Which one of the following was not a part of Kautilya’s Saptanga Theory of the State ?
(a) Amatya
(b) Janapada
(c) Durga
(d) Dhamma
Q23. Consider the following statements about Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism :
- Rummindei Pillar Inscription and Nigali Sagar Pillar Inscription provide clear evidence of Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism.
- Minor Rock Edict-I gives evidence of a sudden change in Ashoka’s faith in Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q24. Which of the following variable(s) is/are de plasand une population pyramids ?
1.
- decators (male and female)
select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II .
(Lake) (State)
A. Kaliveli 1. Sikkim
B: Khajjiar 2. Kerala
C. Khecheopalri 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Vembanad 4. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
Q26. Which one of following is the most important factor for the formulation of smog?
(a) Long winter nights.
(b) Formation of an ‘inversion lid’
(c) Presence of many air pollutant resources
(d) Rapid fall in temperature with increasing height above the sea level
Q27. Mount Thullier (642 m) is an important mountain peak of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located in:
(a) North Andaman
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) South Andaman
(d) Great Nicobar
Q28. Which one of the following land surfaces has the highest albedo?
(a) A snow covered mountain
(b) A barren rocky piedmont surface
(c) A sandy desert
(d) A mangrove forest
Q29. Which one of the following terms represents the maxim, ‘no man/person shall be condemned unheard’?
(a) Autrefois acquit
(b) Non bis in idem
(c) Autrefois convict
(d) Audi Alteram Partem
Q30. Which one of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct?
(a) He shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People.
(b) He may, at any time, resign by writing his resignation to the President of India.
(c) He may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by majority of all the then members of the House.
(d) While the office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker.
Q31. Which one of the following statements about a Bill for Amendment of the Constitution of India is not correct?
(a) It is governed by Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India.
(b) Joint sitting can be resorted to for passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India.
(c) The State Legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution of India.
(d) The previous sanction of the President of India is not required for introducing any Bill in the Parliament for amendment of the Constitution of India.
Q32. Which one of the following methods is followed in electing the President of India ?
(a) Proportional Representation only
(b) First-Past-the-Post System only
(c) Representation and the Single Transferable Vote System
(d) Proportional Representation and the First-Past-the-Post System
Q33. From among the following Mahajanapadas, identify the gana/sangha (oligarchy):
(a) Magadha
(b) Vajji
(c) Avanti
(d) Kosala
Q34. The provision for separate electorate for Muslims was given in
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(c) Communal Award, 1932
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Q35. Which of the following was/were the founder member(s) of Hindustan Socialist Republican Army established in September, 1928?
- Bhagat Singh
- Ajoy Ghosh
- Phanindranath Ghosh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q36. Who among the following did not belong to the group of ‘No-Changers’?
(a) M.A. Ansari
(b) Vithalbhai Patel
(c) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
(d) Kasturi Ranga Iyengar
Q37. The headquarters of Ghadar Movement/Party were at..
(a) San Francisco
(b) Stanford University
(c) Portland
(d) Florida
Q38. Which one of the following pairs of Newspaper and Editor is not correctly matched?
Newspaper Editor
(a) Navjivan Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mahratta Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bengalee Surendranath Banerjea
(d) Voice of India Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q39. Which one of the following was not included in the terms and conditions of Subsidiary Alliance System of Lord Wellesley?
(a) The British would protect their ally.
(b) The ally was free to enter inte enter into agreements with other rulers or engage in warfare.
(c) In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
(d) The ally would have to provide resources for the maintenance of the British armed contingent.
Q40. Which one of the following is an exhaustible but renewable natural resource?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Water in usable condition
(c) Soil
(d) Landscape in its natural condition
Q41. Recently, the term ‘two-pillar solution/two-pillar package’ often seen in the news, refers to
(a) Global energy security in near future
(b) International cyber crime reporting
(c) Minimum global corporate tax
(d) Prevention of international laundering
Q42. Consider the following pairs of vaccine and category/type:
- Covaxin: Inactivated pathogen-based vaccine
- Covishield: mRNA vaccine
- Sputnik V: Viral vector-based vaccine
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q43. What is ‘Unicorn Company’ often mentioned in Indian news?
(a) Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion
(b) Any public sector company to be merged with another public sector company
(c) Privatization of any State-owned company loss-making
(d) Any foreign multinational company doing business in India in collaboration with an Indian company
Q44. A global initiative popularly known as 30 x 30 target’ is often seen in the news. Which one of the following statements best reflects this initiative?
(a) At least 30% of the planet should be protected by 2030.
(b) At least 30% of the cultivated area should be brought under organic farming by 2030.
(c) At least 30% of the energy requirements should be met by renewable sources by 2030.
(d) At least 30% of the people below poverty line should be brought out of their poverty by 2030.
Q45. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding LOFAR (Low Frequency. Array) ?
(a) It is the world’s most powerful radio antenna
(b) It is a space technology launched by NASA to discover exoplanets.
(c) It is an arrangement of satellites in space for the purpose of creating Satellite Navigation System.
(d) It is a wireless communication technology for 5G services.
Q46. In the recently formed grouping of countries. generally known as ‘Middle-East Quad’, in addition to India, which of the following are other members?
(a) Egypt, Saudi Arabia and USA
(b) Israel, UAE and USA/
(c) Egypt, UAE and UK
(d) Israel, Saudi Arabia and UK
Q47. The terms ‘Pinaka and Smerch’ mentioned in news recently refer to
(a) Cruise missiles
(b) Nuclear-powered submarines
(c) Rocket launcher systems
(d) Weaponised drones
Q48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- India had accorded recognition to Bangladesh even before the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971.
- In March 2021, both India and Bangladesh had decided to celebrate 6 December as Maitri Diwas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q49. Recently India signed a contract for the manufacture of nearly 6 lakh AK-203 rifles with which one of the following countries ?
(a) Canada
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Israel
Q50. In December 2021, who among the following succeeded Angela Merkel as the Chancellor of Germany?
(a) Olaf Scholz
(b) Annalena Baerbock
(c) Armin Laschet
(d) Jana Puglierin
Q51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Nilamoni Phukan Jr. 56th Jnanpith Award winner.
- Damodar Mauzo is the 57th Jnanpith Award winner.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q52. Which one of the following statements about Anil Menon is correct?
(a) He is an engineer who revolutionised organic farming.
(b) He is a diplomat selected in a UN Peace-Keeping mission.
(c) He is a physician selected by NASA to be an astronaut.
(d) He is a star football player.
Q53. India’s maiden human space mission will be launched in 2023. What is its name?
(a) Vayumitra
(b) Vikram
(c) Chandrayaan-3
(d) Gaganyaan
Q54. Which one of the following teams won the Senior Women’s National Football Championship, 2021?
(a) Manipur
(b) Railways
(c) West Bengal
(d) Odisha
Q55. Which of the following about Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary is/are correct?
- It is recently declared as a Ramsar Site
(wetlands of international importance) - It is located in Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) (b) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q56. Which one among the following countries has announced a plan that sets a goal of having fewer than 5% of its populace smoking by 2025?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) New Zealand
(d) Russia
Q57. Who among the following won the FIDE World 6 Chess Championship, 2021?
(a) Nepomniachtchi
(b) Magnus Carlsen/
(c) Ding Liren
(d) Anish Giri
Q58. With reference. to Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, Sultanpur National Park, Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary and Wadhwana Wetland, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- All of them are Ramsar sites.
- All of them are naturally formed wetlands.
- All of them are birding sites.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q59. To study which one of the following was a spacecraft launched that would be farthest from the Sun and would run exclusively on solar power?
(a) Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids
(b) Saturn’s rings and moons
(c) Mars’ atmosphere
(d) Kuiper Belt and Oort Cloud
Q60. Recently, archaeological studies at which one among the following revealed that by 1200 BCE there was a flourishing agrarian civilization and the cultivation of rice was well-established at this place ?
(a) Raichur Doab
(b) Krishna Delta
(c) Vicinity of Vamsadhara river
(d) Vicinity of Thamirabarani river
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